Reason #5=Muhammad did those things which a false prophet would do:

        Deuteronomy 18:20 says,

 

                      “But the prophet, which shall presume to speak a word in my name, which I have not commanded him to speak, or that shall speak in the name of other gods, even that prophet shall die.”

 

                When Muhammad first began preaching in Mecca his desire was that the people of Mecca, the Quraysh, would accept him as a prophet and the religion he was teaching. They were not receptive to him and made life difficult for him and his followers, and many of
his followers fled to Christian Abyssinia for protection. This was until
Muhammad recited Surah 53 (Surat-an-Najm) with the following verses:Have you thought of al-Lat and al-Uzza and Manat, the third ... these are the exalted Gharaniq (a high flying bird) whose intercession is approved. (Ibn Ishaq, Sirat Rasul Allah, pp. 165-166) Al-Lat, al-Uzza and Manat were some of the local idols worshiped in Mecca.

 

               Previously Muhammad had spoken against them in his monotheist preaching but now he recited that their "intercession is approved".

                When (the) Quraysh heard that, they were delighted and greatly pleased at the way in which he spoke of their gods and they listened to him ... Then the people dispersed and Quraysh went out, delighted at what had been said about their gods, saying, "Muhammad has spoken of our gods in splendid fashion". (Ibn Ishaq, Sirat Rasul Allah, p. 166) The Apostle of Allah, may Allah bless him, repeated them (the verses), and he went on reciting the whole of surah (53) and then fell in prostration, and the people (the Quraysh) fell in prostration with him. (Ibn Sa'd, Kitab Al-Tabaqat Al-Kabir, vol. 1, p. 237) Imam
Bukhari too confirms that after Muhammad recited Surah 53 the Quraysh accepted Muhammad and prayed with him: Narrated Ibn Abbas: The Prophet ... prostrated while reciting An-Najm (Sura 53) and with him prostrated the Muslims, the pagans (the Quraysh), the jinns, and all human beings. (Bukhari: vol. 2, bk. 19, no. 177, Khan)
Muhammad's desire had been realised; the Quraysh accepted him. The Muslims who had fled to Abyssinia heard about this and many of them began to return to Mecca. The Quraysh accepted Muhammad because he had, "spoken of (their) gods in splendid fashion" (Ibn Ishaq, p. 166). The Islamic explanation as to why Muhammad accepted the idols is that he desired a way to attract the Quraysh and
Satan used this opportunity to put these words on Muhammad's lips:
Now the apostle was anxious for the welfare of his people, wishing to attract them as far as he could. It has been mentioned that he longed for a way to attract them ... (and) Satan, when he (Muhammad) was meditating upon it, and desiring to bring it (sc. reconciliation)
to his people, put upon his tongue "these are the exalted Gharaniq[6]
whose intercession is approved". (Ibn Ishaq,Sirat Rasul Allah, pp.
165-166) This is what is meant by the phrase, the Satanic Verses; they were words that Muhammad spoke from Satan and his own desire. The Islamic accounts then say that the angel Gabriel rebuked Muhammad for what he had said:Then Gabriel came to the
apostle and said , "What have you done, Muhammad? You have read to these people something I did not bring you from God and you have said what He did not say to you." (Ibn Ishaq, Sirat Rasul Allah, p. 166)
Then Muhammad confessed:I ascribed to Allah, what He had not said. (Ibn Sa'd, Kitab Al-Tabaqat Al-Kabir, vol. 1, p. 237) I have fabricated things against God and have imputed to Him words which He has
not spoken. (Al-Tabari, The History of Al-Tabari, vol. vi, p. 111)
Muhammad then announced that Gabriel had now told him to speak against the idols and so what he recited changed. Previously it had been: Have you thought of al-Lat and al-Uzza and Manat, the third ... these are the exalted Gharaniq whose intercession is approved. (Ibn Ishaq, Sirat Rasul Allah, pp. 165-166)Now the verse became:Have you considered El-Lat and El-'Uzza and Manat the third, the other? What, have you males, and He females? That were indeed an unjust division. They are naught but names yourselves have named, and your fathers; God has sent down no authority touching them. (Qur'an 53:19-23, Arberry)This final form of the verse is what is now in the modern Qur'an.The Quraysh saw that Muhammad had now changed his message: When the annulment of what Satan had put upon the prophet's tongue came from God, (the) Quraysh said: "Muhammad has repented of what he said about the position of your gods with Allah, altered it and brought something else." (Ibn Ishaq, Sirat Rasul Allah, pp. 166-167)This explanation, that Satan had placed these words on Muhammad tongue and God had now cancelled it, now had to be justified to both his followers and to the Quraysh. The answer came by referring to another part of the Qur'an: Never have We sent a single
prophet or apostle before you with whose wishes Satan did not tamper. But God abrogates the interjections of Satan and confirms His own revelations. (Qur'an 22:52, Dawood) Muhammad's justification was that other prophets had had their wishes tampered with by
Satan just as he had done, but God had corrected the whole situation.

 

                 Thus Muhammad need to be stoned to death according to Deuteronomy 18:20.

 

Reason #6=The phrase "from among their brothers"simply means a brother Israelite:

 

             The phrase "from among their brothers." We get a better understanding of what this means from a similar usage when God instructed the Israelites about choosing a king. Notice Deuteronomy 17:14-15. 

 

              When ... you say "Let us set a king over us like the nations around us, "be sure to appoint over you the king the Lord your God chooses. He must be from among your own brothers. Do not place a foreigner over you, one who is not a brother Israelite.

                Surely,
no Muslim familiar with ancient Middle Eastern practice would expect the Israelites to seek a descendent of Ishmael for their king. Furthermore, it is clear that the phrase "from among their brothers"simply means a brother Israelite.

      

              In the scripture Ishmaelites are never called as the brother of Israelites.Jacob (Israel) whose father was Isaac had a brother Ishmael.If one make Israelites as brothers of Ishmaelites,it is like calling everyone brothers and sisters since we are all childrens of one parents (Adam and Eve).

     

              But in the scripture, the Edomites Descendants of Esau are called the Brother of Jacob (Israel).In Numbers 20:14 we read,

         

                 And Moses sent messengers from Kadesh unto the king of Edom: “Thus saith thy brother Israel: ‘Thou knowest all the travail that hath befallen us,..........."

 

Reason #7= There are many similarity between Jesus (Yeshua) and Moses:

 

           Here is a site which show about 30 similarity between Moses and Jesus Christ.(Click Here).

 

Reason #8=There will indeed a prophet who will arise like Moses:

 

             Some argue that  the end of Deuteronomy says "that no other prophet has risen in Israel like Moses, so it must be someone outside of Israel"

 

            Firstly, this passage is merely saying that up to that time
no prophet had arisen in Israel like Moses; if it was referring to the
indefinite future we would read "since then, no prophet will arise in
Israel like Moses.." Instead, it says "has"; past tense at the
time of the Torah. Indeed, this passage actually clarifies the contrast between Moses and Muhammad, as we saw previously-- he knew the Lord face to face, and did mighty signs and wonders:
 

                  "Since then, no prophet has risen in Israel like Moses, whom the LORD knew face to face, who did all those miraculous signs and wonders the LORD sent him to do in Egypt." (Deuteronomy 34:10-11).